ext_21044 ([identity profile] muckefuck.livejournal.com) wrote in [personal profile] muckefuck 2006-06-28 03:32 pm (UTC)

Nothing odd about that: They both get it from the original Greek προβλήμα, which is neuter. Since Spanish and French don't have a neuter, they have to go with masculine or feminine. French speakers are apparently more influenced by form in this case whereas for the Spanish speakers it's the close historical connexions between masculine and neuter which are decisive.

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